Download Modul The Show IP route Challenge Lab - Chapter 8 CCNA2

In this lab activity, you will determine the topology of a network using the outputs from the show ip route command.

You must draw a topology diagram and determine the interface addressing on each router. Next, you must build and configure the network based on the outputs. The DTE and DCE assignment is at your discretion. When complete, the outputs from your network must match those given below.

Link Download File ( Download Modul The Show IP route Challenge Lab.pka )

Download Modul Challenge RIPv2 Configuration - Chapter 7 CCNA2

Use the Packet Tracer Activity to repeat a simulation of Lab 7.5.2. Remember, however, that Packet Tracer is not a substitute for a hands-on lab experience with real equipment.

A summary of the instructions is provided within the activity. Use the Lab PDF for more details.

Link Download File ( Download Modul Challenge RIPv2 Configuration.pka )

CCNA 2 Take Assessment Chapter 11 - 97%

1. Refer to the exhibit. What configuration statements would give the results that are shown in the output of the show ip protocols command?

B(config)# router ospf 1
B(config-router)# router-id 192.168.1.5

2. Refer to the exhibit. All routers have been configured with the interface priorities that are shown. All routers were restarted simultaneously. The results of the DR/BDR election are shown. What can be concluded about this network?

The highest router ID was most likely determined via an OSPF router-id statement or statements.

3. Refer to the exhibit. When OSPF is operational in the exhibited network, what neighbor relationship is developed between Router1 and Router2?

A FULL adjacency is formed.

4. What range of networks will be advertised in the OSPF updates by the command Router1(config-router)# network 192.168.0.0 0.0.15.255 area 100?

192.168.0.0/24 through 192.168.15.0/24

5. What does OSPF use to calculate the cost to a destination network?

bandwidth

6. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator wants to set the router ID of Router1 to 192.168.100.1. What steps can the administrator take to accomplish this?

nothing, the router-id of Router1 is already 192.168.100.1

7. Refer to the exhibit. Assuming that the routers have default interface OSPF priorities and no configured loopback interfaces, what two roles will router B play on each network segment? (Choose two.)

DR for network 192.168.1.200
BDR for network 192.168.1.204

8. What does OSPF use to reduce the number of exchanges of routing information in networks where large numbers of neighbors are present? (Choose two.)

designated router
backup designated router

9. Refer to the exhibit. Router1 and Router2 are running OSPF. The show ip ospf neighbor command reveals no neighbors. What is a possible cause?

OSPF hello or dead timers do not match.

10. Refer to the exhibit. Router A is correctly configured for OSPF. Which OSPF configuration statement or set of statements was entered for router B to generate the exhibited routing table?

B(config-router)# network 192.168.1.0 0.0.0.3 area 0

11. Refer to the exhibit. The routers in the exhibit are using default OSPF configuration settings to advertise all attached networks. If all of the routers start at the same time, what will be the result of the DR and BDR elections for this single area OSPF network? (Choose three.)

Router A will be DR for 10.4.0.0/16.
HQ will be BDR for 10.4.0.0/16.
Remote will be DR for 10.5.0.0/16.

12. Refer to the exhibit. How many OSPF adjacencies must be formed to build the complete topology if a DR or BDR were not elected in this OSPF network?

6

13. Refer to the exhibit. What does the "2" stand for in the router ospf 2 statement?

The number 2 identifies this particular instance of OSPF on this router.

14. A fully converged five router OSPF network has been running successfully for several weeks. All configurations have been saved and no static routes are used. If one router looses power and reboots, what information will be in its routing table after the configuration file is loaded but before OSPF has converged?

Directly connected networks that are operational will be in the routing table.

15. Refer to the exhibit. RouterA, RouterB, and RouterC in the diagram are running OSPF on their Ethernet interfaces. Router D was just added to the network. Routers are configured with the loopback interfaces (Lo 0) that are shown in the exhibit. What happens to the OSPF DR/BDR after RouterD is added to the network?

There is no change in the DR or BDR until either current DR or BDR goes down.

16. Refer to the exhibit. Which network command or set of commands will cause OSPF to be enabled to send and receive packets for any R1 interface in the exhibited subnets?

R1(config-router)# network 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 area 0

17. Refer to the exhibit. What does the "O*E2" from the "O*E2 0.0.0.0/0 [110/1] via 192.168.1.1, 00:05:34, Serial0/0" line represent?

an external OSPF route that will not increment in cost.

18. What three parameters must be indentical between OSPF routers in order to form an adjacency? (Choose three.)

area id
hello interval
network type

19. Which two statements describe the use of OSPF DR/BDR elections? (Choose two.)

Elections are required in broadcast multiaccess networks.
Elections are sometimes required in NBMA networks.

20. What is the default administrative distance for OSPF?

110

21. Refer to the exhibit. What is the cost of the route to the 10.0.0.0 network?

1786

22. Refer to the exhibit. All routers are running OSPF. What cost would JAX put in its routing table for the 10.0.0.0/24 network?

1787

23. Refer to the exhibit. Which command sequence on RouterB will redistribute a gateway of last resort to the other routers in OSPF area 0?

RouterB(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 172.16.6.6
RouterB(config)# router ospf 10
RouterB(config-router)# default-information originate

24. Refer to the exhibit. Routers A, B, C, and D are all running OSPF with default router IDs and OSPF interface priorities. Loopback interfaces are not configured and all interfaces are operational. Router D is the DR and router C is the BDR.

What happens immediately after the following commands are entered on router A?

A(config)# interface fa0/0
A(config-if)# ip ospf priority 255

D will remain the DR. C will remain the BDR.

25. Refer to the exhibit. What must be received between neighbors to prevent the dead time that is shown in the exhibit from reaching zero?

hello packets

CCNA 2 Take Assessment Chapter 9 - 100%

Expect minimum percentage: 100%

1. On a router running EIGRP, what database would maintain a list of feasible successors?
ans:
topology table

2. Refer to the exhibit. This is the debug output from 2 directly connected EIGRP routers. They are not forming an adjacency. What is the cause?
ans:
they have different autonomous-system numbers

3. Refer to the exhibit. Which command will advertise the 192.168.1.64/30 network but not the 192.168.1.32 network on router A?
ans:
network 192.168.1.64 0.0.0.3

4. What two actions will the EIGRP DUAL FSM take if a link to a network goes down? (Choose two.)
ans:
query neighbors for a new route
search topology table for a feasible successor

5. Refer to the exhibit. What is indicated by the P at the beginning of the topology entry?
ans:
the route is in a stable state

6. In which of the following tables does the EIGRP DUAL algorithm store the primary route to a destination? (Choose two.)
ans:
routing
topology

7. What information is maintained in the EIGRP topology database for a destination route? (Choose two.)
ans:
the feasible distance of the route
the route cost as advertised by the neighboring router

8. Which of the following statements describes the bounded updates used by EIGRP?
ans:
Partial updates are sent only to routers that need the information.

9. Host 192.168.1.66 in the network illustrated is unable to ping host 192.168.1.130. How must EIGRP be configured to enable connectivity between the two hosts? (Choose two.)
ans:
R1(config-router)# no auto-summary
R2(config-router)# no auto-summary

10. Which two statements describe characteristics of EIGRP? (Choose two.)
ans:
EIGRP is a distance vector routing protocol.
EIGRP supports classless routing and VLSM.

11. Refer to the exhibit. Based on the output of show ip eigrp neighbors, what are two possible problems with adjacencies between Router1 and Router2? (Choose two.)
ans:
The routers are configured with different EIGRP process IDs.
The serial interfaces for both routers are in different networks.

12. Refer to the exhibit. In the topology table, what do the numbers 3011840 and 3128695 represent?
ans:
the total metric for that network as advertised by the EIGRP neighbor

13. Refer to the exhibit. EIGRP is the only routing protocol enabled on this network. No static routes are configured on this router. What can be concluded about network 198.18.1.0/24 from the exhibited output?
ans:
Packets that are destined for 198.18.1.0/24 will be forwarded to 198.18.10.6.

14. Refer to the exhibit. All interfaces have been configured with the bandwidths that are shown in the exhibit. Assuming that all routers are using a default configuration of EIGRP as their routing protocol, what path will packets take from the 172.16.1.0/16 network to the 192.168.200.0/24 network?
ans:
A,B,E

15. By default, which two metrics are used by EIGRP to determine the best path between networks?
ans:
delay
bandwidth

16. Which term defines a collection of networks under the administrative control of a single entity that presents a common routing policy to the Internet?
ans:
autonomous system

17. Refer to the exhibit. The company is using EIGRP with an autonomous system number of 10. Pings between hosts on networks that are connected to router A and those that are connected to router B are successful. However, users on the 192.168.3.0 network are unable to reach users on the 192.168.1.32 network. What is the most likely cause of this problem?
ans:
The routers are not configured in the same EIGRP routing domain.

18. In the command router eigrp 20, what is the purpose of the number 20?
ans:
identifies the autonomous system number this EIGRP process will advertise

19. The show ip eigrp topology command output on a router displays a successor route and a feasible successor route to network 192.168.1.0/24. In order to reduce processor utilization, what does EIGRP do when the primary route to this network fails?
ans:
The backup route to network 192.168.1.0/24 is installed in the routing table.

20. What administrative distance would a router assign to a default route in EIGRP that is learned from a source external to the autonomous system?
ans:
170

21. Refer to the exhibit. Network 192.168.0.0/28 goes down. What type of packet does Router2 immediately send to Router1 and Router3?
ans:
unicast update packets to 192.168.1.1 and 192.168.2.1

CCNA 2 Take Assessment Chapter 10 - 100%

Expect minimum percentage: 100%

1. Which algorithm is run by link-state routing protocols to calculate the shortest path to destination networks?
ans:
Dijkstra

2. What feature do modern link-state protocols provide to minimize processing and memory requirements?
ans:
splitting routing topologies into smaller areas

3. What is the final step in the link state routing process?
ans:
SPF computes best path to each destination network

4. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement correctly describes the path traffic would take from the 10.0.0.0/24 network to the 192.168.1.0/24 network if a link-state routing protocol was in use?
ans:
BOS -> ORL -> JAX -> ATL because this path is the lowest cost

5. Refer to the exhibit. What kind of information would be seen in an LSP sent from router JAX to router ATL?
ans:
cost of the link

6. Refer to the exhibit. When Router D is configured to use a link-state routing protocol and is added to the network, what is the first thing that it does to begin learning the network topology?
ans:
It learns about its directly connected networks when its interfaces reach the up state.

7. What two statements correctly describe the link state routing process? (Choose two.)
ans:
all routers in the area have link state databases
each router in the area floods LSPs to all neighbors

8. What speeds up convergence in a network using link-state routing?
ans:
updates triggered by network changes

9. Why is it difficult for routing loops to occur in networks that use link-state routing?
ans:
Each router builds a complete and synchronized view of the network.

10. What are two advantages of using a link-state routing protocol instead of a distance vector routing protocol? (Choose two.)
ans:
Each router independently determines the route to each network.
After the inital LSP flooding, they generally require less bandwidth to communicate changes in a topology.

11. To achieve network convergence, what three steps does each link state router take? (Choose three.)
ans:
build a Link State Packet (LSP) containing the state of each directly connected link
flood the LSP to all neighbors, who then store all LSPs received in a database
construct a complete map of the topology and compute the best path to each destination network

12. What two events will cause a link state router to send LSPs to all neighbors? (Choose two.)
ans:
whenever the network topology changes
upon initial startup of router or routing protocol

13. Which database or table must be identical on all link-state routers within an area in order to construct an accurate SPF tree?
ans:
link-state database

14. Which two routing protocols use Dijkstra’s shortest path first algorithm? (Choose two.)
ans:
IS-IS
OSPF

15. When are link-state packets sent to neighbors?
ans:
when a link goes up or down

16. Refer to the exhibit. What does JAX do with link-state packets from ORL?
ans:
sends out the individual link-state packets out the interface connected to BOS

17. A new network administrator is given the task of selecting an appropriate dynamic routing protocol for a software development company. The company has over 100 routers, uses CIDR and VLSM, requires fast convergence, and uses both Cisco and non-Cisco equipment. Which routing protocol is appropriate for this company?
ans:
OSPF

18. What action does a link-state router take immediately upon receipt of an LSP from a neighboring router?
ans:
floods the LSP to neighbors

19. Refer to the exhibit. If all routers and interfaces are configured to use a link-state routing protocol, from which routers will router D receive hello packets?
ans:
B and C

CCNA 2 Take Assessment Chapter 8 - 100%

Expect minimum percentage: 100%

1. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator has discovered that packets destined for servers on the 172.16.254.0 network are being dropped by Router2. What command should the administrator issue to ensure that these packets are sent out the gateway of last resort, Serial 0/0/1?
ans:
ip classless

2. Refer to the exhibit. How many routes in this output qualify for use as ultimate routes?
ans:
7

3. The following entry is displayed in the routing table:

R 192.168.8.0/24 [120/2] via 192.168.4.1, 00:00:26, Serial0/0/1

What type of route is this?
ans:
a level 1 ultimate network route

4. Refer to the exhibit. The graphic contains partial contents of the routing table on router E. Router E is running version 12.3 of the IOS and is configured for default routing behavior. Router E receives a packet to forward. Which route in the routing table will be searched first and why?
ans:
172.16.0.0/25 because it is the first level 1 route

5. Refer to the exhibit. A packet destined for host 128.107.0.5/16 is processed by the JAX router. After finding the static route in the routing table that matches the destination network for this packet, what does the router do next?
ans:
performs a recursive lookup to find the exit interface used to forward the packet

6. A network is converged and the routing tables are complete. When a packet needs to be forwarded, what is the first criterion used to determine the best path in the routing table?
ans:
the route with the longest address and mask match to the destination

7. Refer to the exhibit. Router1 is running IOS version 12.2. What will the network administrator need to do so that packets for unknown child routes of 172.16.0.0/24 will not be dropped?
ans:
do nothing, ip classless is on by default

8. Refer to the exhibit. Router B receives a packet with a destination address of 10.16.1.97. What will router B do?
ans:
use the default route

9. Refer to the exhibit. What protocol was used to distribute the routing information for the network 172.16.1.4?
ans:
RIPv2

10. Refer to the exhibit. What subnet mask will Router1 apply to child routes of the 172.16.0.0/24 network?
ans:
255.255.255.0

11. A route to a destination network is learned from multiple routing protocols. What is used by a Cisco router to select the preferred route to the destination that will be installed in the routing table?
ans:
administrative distance

12. What occurs when no ip classless is implemented on the router?
ans:
The router will assume it has knowledge of all subnets in the network and will not search beyond child routes for a better match.

13. Refer to the exhibit. Router1 has been issued the ip classless command. What happens to packets destined to host 172.16.3.10?
ans:
forward out interface Serial0/0/1

14. Refer to the exhibit. With the ip classless command issued, what will router R2 do with a packet destined for host 172.16.4.234?
ans:
send packet out Serial 0/0/1

15. Refer to the exhibit. What parent network will automatically be included in the routing table when the three subnets are configured on Router1?
ans:
172.16.0.0/16

16. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement correctly describes this network?
ans:
There is at least one parent and one child route

17. Refer to the exhibit. What can be determined from this output?
ans:
All of the routes listed are network routes.

18. What determines if the router implements a classless route lookup process?
ans:
The command ip classless is enabled on the router.

CCNA 2 Take Assessment Chapter 7 - 100%

100%

1. Refer to the exhibit. If all routers are running RIP version 2, why is there no route for the 192.168.1.32/27 network?
ans:
Rip version 2 will auto summarize routes by default.

2. What are two reasons to implement RIP version 2 rather than RIP version 1? (Choose two.)
ans:
RIP version 2 supports VLSM.
RIP version 2 supports routing update authentication.

3. Refer to the exhibit. RIPv1 is configured as the routing protocol for the network that is shown. The following commands are used on each router:
router rip
network 10.0.0.0
network 172.16.0.0
When this configuration is complete, users on the LAN of each router are unable to access the remote LANs. Why?
ans:
RIPv1 is unable to route to discontiguous subnets of a major network.

4. Refer to the exhibit. What effect will the commands that are shown have on RIP updates for Router1?
ans:
Only version 2 updates are sent to 224.0.0.9.

5. Refer to the exhibit. A technician needs to add a new loopback interface to test routing functionality and network design. The technician enters the following set of commands on the router:
Sanford(config)# interface loopback1
Sanford(config-if)# ip address 192.168.6.62 255.255.255.252
Why does the router respond with an error?
ans:
The network address for Loopback1 overlaps with an already configured interface address.

6. What is the maximum network diameter permitted by the default metric of RIPv2?
ans:
15 hops

7. Refer to the exhibit. All routers are running RIP version 2. JAX is configured to just advertise the 10.0.0.0/24 network. CHI is configured to advertise the 172.16.0.0/16 network. A network administrator enters the commands shown in the exhibit. What changes will occur in this network?
ans:
The CHI router will install a route to the 192.168.0.0/16 network in its routing table.

8. Refer to the exhibit. What can be concluded from the output shown in the exhibit?
ans:
The no auto-summary has not been configured on this router.

9. Refer to the exhibit. All routers are running RIPv1. What changes will occur in the routing table of router B if a loopback interface with an address of 10.16.1.129/27 is configured on router B?
ans:
A connected route to the 10.16.1.128/27 network is added.

10. How are RIP v1 and RIP v2 similar to one another? (Choose three.)
ans:
They both use hop count as a metric.
They both have the same metric value for infinite distance.
They both use split horizon to prevent routing loops.

11. RIPv2 is the configured routing protocol on the routers in a network. The command Router(config-router)# no version 2 is entered on the routers. What effect does entering this command have on routing updates?
ans:
Version 1 and 2 updates will be received and the version 2 updates will not be sent.

12. A network administrator installed four new routers that are running RIPv2. Router1 is a boundary router in the RIPv2 network and has a default route configured. Once the network has converged, the network administrator enters Router1(config-router)# default-information originate on Router1. How will this affect the network?
ans:
propagates the default route to all routers in the network

13. Refer to the exhibit. The exhibited network contains a mixture of Cisco and non-Cisco routers. The command debug ip rip was entered on the JAX router. All routers are running the same version of RIP. Router CHI and Router ORL are not able to reach the 192.168.1.16/28 network. What is a possible solution to this problem?
ans:
Configure RIPv2 on routers.

14. Refer to the exhibit. Which command on which router will allow Router1 to learn about the 192.168.0.0/20 network?
ans:
Router2(config-router)# version 2

15. A network administrator has been told that the company IP address infrastructure must adhere to RFC 1918. What three IP address ranges from RFC 1918 could the administrator use on the network? (Choose three.)
ans:
10.0.0.0/8
172.16.0.0/12
192.168.0.0/16

16. Refer to the exhibit. Routers East and West are configured using RIPv1. Both routers are sending updates about their directly connected routes. The East router can ping the West router serial interface and West can ping the serial interface of East. However, neither router has dynamically learned routes from the other. What is most likely the problem?
ans:
VLSM is not supported by RIPv1.

17. Refer to the exhibit. Which command will allow Router2 to learn about the 192.168.16.0/28 network?
ans:
Router1(config-router)# network 192.168.16.0

18. What field was added to the RIP message header by RFC 1723 to add support for VLSM and CIDR?
ans:
subnet mask

19. What are two functions of the network command used when configuring routing protocols? (Choose two.)
ans:
identifies which networks will be included in the routing updates
determines which interfaces can send and receive routing updates

Challenge VLSM Calculation and Addressing Design - CCNA2 Chapter 6

In this activity, you will use the network address 172.16.0.0/16 to subnet and provide the IP addressing for a given topology. VLSM will be used so that the addressing requirements can be met using the 172.16.0.0/16 network. 

Link Download File ( Challenge VLSM Calculation and Addressing Design.pka )

Basic VLSM Calculation and Addressing Design - CCNA2 chapter 6

In this activity, you will use the network address 192.168.1.0/24 to subnet and provide the IP addressing for a given topology. VLSM will be used so that the addressing requirements can be met using the 192.168.1.0/24 network.

Link Download File ( Basic VLSM Calculation and Addressing Design.pka )

CCNA2 Take Assessment Chapter 6 - 100%

 Expect minimum percentage: 100%

1. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator wants to create a subnet for the point-to-point connection between the two routers. Which subnetwork mask would provide enough addresses for the point-to-point link with the least number of wasted addresses?
ans:
255.255.255.252

2. An additional subnet is required for a new Ethernet link between Router1 and Router2 as shown in the diagram. Which of the following subnet addresses can be configured in this network to provide a maximum of 14 useable addresses for this link while wasting the fewest addresses?
ans:
192.1.1.224/28

3. Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer is summarizing the two groups of routes on router R1 shown in the exhibit. Which summarization will work for all the subnets?
ans:
192.168.0.0/21

4. What is a supernet?
ans:
a summarization of serveral IP classful networks into one IP address range

5. In the network shown in the graphic, three bits were borrowed from the host portion of a Class C address. How many valid host addresses will be unused on the three point-to-point links combined if VLSM is not used?
ans:
84

6. What does VLSM allow a network administrator to do?
ans:
utilize multiple subnet masks in the same IP address space

7. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator wants to minimize the number of entries in Router1’s routing table. What should the administrator implement on the network?
ans:
CIDR

8. Refer to the exhibit. A network technician enters the static route in R1 needed to reach network 10.1.1.0/24. A ping from the S0/0/0 interface on R1 to host B fails. The technician begins testing the network and has the following results:
1. pings from R1 to the S0/0/0 interface on R2....successful
2. pings from R1 to the Fa0/0 interface on R2....successful
3. pings from host B to hosts on the 10.1.1.0/24 network....successful
4. pings from host B to the Fa0/0 interface on R2....successful
5. pings from R2 to host B....successful.
What is the likely cause of the failure of the ping from R1 to host B?
ans:
The default gateway on host B is not correctly set.

9. Which three interior routing protocols support VLSM? (Choose three.)
ans:
OSPF
RIP v2
EIGRP

10. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator needs to create two subnetworks from 10.0.0.0/8 for a router running RIPv2. The Admin subnet requires 120 hosts and the Sales subnet requires 58 hosts. The network administrator assigned 10.0.1.128/25 to the Admin subnet. The Sales subnet is given 10.0.1.192/26. What will be the result of this addressing scheme?
ans:
The subnets overlap and will be rejected by the router.

11. Which of the following are contained in the routing updates of classless routing protocols? (Choose two.)
ans:
32-bit address
subnet mask

12. A Class C address has been assigned for use in the network shown in the graphic. Using VLSM, which bit mask should be used to provide for the number of host addresses required on Router A, while wasting the fewest addresses?
ans:
/27

13. Refer to the exhibit. The number of required host addresses for each subnet in a network is listed in the exhibit. This number includes the host address requirements for all router ports and hosts on that subnet. After all device and router port address assignments are determined, what will be the total number of unused host addresses available?
ans:
29

14. What two advantages does CIDR provide to a network? (Choose two.)
ans:
reduced routing table size
reduced routing update traffic

15. A network administrator is tasked with dividing up a class C network among the QA, Sales, and Administration departments. The QA department is made up of 10 people, the Sales is made up of 28 people, and the Administration has 6. Which two subnets masks adequately address the QA and Sales departments? (Choose two.)
ans:
255.255.255.224 for Sales
255.255.255.240 for QA

16. Refer to the exhibit. In the network that is shown, the router interfaces are assigned the first address in each subnet. Which IP address would be usable for a host on one of the LANs in this network?
ans:
192.168.2.130/25

17. Refer to the exhibit. Which address is a broadcast address for one of the subnets that are shown in the exhibit?
ans:
192.168.4.15/29

18. Refer to the exhibit. What subnet mask will be applied by router B when it receives a RIPv1 update for the network 172.16.1.0?
ans:
24

19. Which of the following problems does VLSM help to alleviate?
ans:
the shortage of IP addresses

20. A router has a summary route to network 192.168.32.0/20 installed in its routing table. What range of networks are summarized by this route?
ans:
192.168.32.0 – 192.168.47.0/24

HDMI (2 meter) 6 foot cable HQ 1080P 1.3b 

CCNA 2 Take Assessment chapter 5 - 100%

ERouting chapter 5 - 100%

1. Refer to the exhibit. The Ethernet interface on Router2 goes down and the administrator notices that the route is still valid in the routing table of Router1. How much longer will it take for Router1 to mark the route invalid by setting the metric to 16?
ans:
30 seconds

2. Refer to the exhibit. Router1 and Router2 are running the RIPv1 protocol. The network administrator configures the command network 10.1.0.0 on Router1. What network will Router1 advertise to Router2?
ans:
10.0.0.0/8

3. Refer to the exhibit. Router1 is running RIPv1. What command was entered into Router1 to configure the gateway of last resort?
ans:
ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 S0/0/1

4. Refer to the exhibit. All routers that are shown are running the RIP routing protocol. All unknown IP traffic must be forwarded to the ISP. What router or set of routers are recommended to have both a default route and the default-information originate command issued to implement this forwarding policy?
ans:
only the gateway router

5. Refer to the exhibit. All routers are configured with valid interface addresses in the indicated networks and are running RIPv1. The network is converged. Which routes are present in the routing tables?
ans:
All routers have all /30 routes. Routers A and E also have some of the /24 routes in their routing table.

6. Refer to the exhibit. A network consists of multiple routers. What can be verified when the show ip protocols command is issued on one of the routers in the network?
ans:
routing protocol configuration in use for IP on this router

7. Which two statements are true regarding the characteristics of RIPv1? (Choose two).
ans:
It is a distance vector routing protocol.
The data portion of a RIP message is encapsulated into a UDP segment.

8. The following line was displayed in the output of the show ip route command.
R 192.168.3.0/24 [120/3] via 192.168.2.2, 00:00:30, Serial0/0
What is the value of the routing metric?
ans:
3

9. Which of the following is considered a limitation of RIP v1?
ans:
RIP v1 does not send subnet mask information in its updates.

10. What are three characteristics of the RIPv1 routing protocol? (Choose three.)
ans:
uses hop count as a metric
considers a metric of 16 as infinity
calculates metrics using the Bellman Ford algorithm

11. Refer to the exhibit. The network that is shown is running RIPv1. The 192.168.10.0/24 network was recently added and will only contain end users. What command or set of commands should be entered on Router1 to prevent RIPv1 updates from being sent to the end user devices on the new network while still allowing this new network to be advertised to other routers?
ans:
Router1(config-router)# passive-interface fastethernet 0/0

12. Refer to the exhibit. What can be concluded from the routing table output of router B?
ans:
The default-information originate command has been entered on A.

13. Which command will display RIP activity as it occurs on a router?
ans:
debug ip rip

14. Refer to the exhibit. All routers in the exhibit are running RIP v1. The network administrator issues the show ip route command on router A. What routes would appear in the routing table output if the network is converged? (Choose two).
ans:
R 192.168.2.0/24 [120/1]
R 10.10.1.0/24 [120/2]

15. What is the default update period in seconds for the RIP routing protocol?
ans:
30

16. Refer to the exhibit. What can be concluded from the output of the show ip route command?
ans:
There are two equal cost paths to network 172.16.100.128.

17. Which of the following would be the correct command sequence to enable RIP on Router B for all connected networks?
ans:
RouterB(config)# router rip
RouterB(config-router)# network 198.16.4.0
RouterB(config-router)# network 210.36.7.0
RouterB(config-router)# network 220.17.29.0

18. What will happen if an interface IP address is entered for the address portion of the network command in a RIPv1 configuration instead of a network address?
ans:
All interfaces in the same classful network as the configured address will be included in the RIPv1 routing process.

19. Which command or set of commands will stop the RIP routing process?
ans:
RouterB(config)# no router rip

20.Refer to the exhibit. RIPv1 is running on all three routers. All interfaces have been correctly configured with addresses in the address ranges that are shown. Which route would you see in the routing table on router CHI if the routers are configured with the commands that are displayed in the exhibit?

ans :
192.168.0.0/24

CCNA 2 Take Assessment Chapter 4 - 100%

Expect minimum percentage: 100%

1. What does the RIP holddown timer do?
ans:
instructs routers to ignore updates, for a specified time or event, about possible inaccessible routes

2. What metric does the RIP routing protocol consider to be infinity?
ans:
16

3. What is a routing loop?
ans:
a condition where a packet is constantly transmitted within a series of routers without ever reaching its intended destination

4. Which two statements are true regarding the function of the RIPv1 routing updates? (Choose two).
ans:
updates are broadcast at regular intervals
broadcasts are sent to 255.255.255.255

5. Which of the following can exist in a distance vector network that has not converged? (Choose three.)
ans:
routing loops
inconsistent traffic forwarding
inconsistent routing table entries

6. Refer to the exhibit. What path will packets from the 192.168.1.0/24 network travel to reach the 10.0.0.0/8 network if RIP is the active routing protocol?
ans:
The path will be router A -> router D -> router E.

7. What is the purpose of the TTL field in the IP header?
ans:
limits the time or hops that a packet can traverse through the network before it should be discarded

8. Which two conditions are most likely to cause a routing loop? (Choose two.)
ans:
inconsistent routing tables
incorrectly configured static routes

9. Refer to the exhibit. If all routers are using RIP, how many rounds of updates will occur before all routers know all networks?
ans:
3

10. The graphic shows a network that is configured to use RIP routing protocol. Router2 detects that the link to Router1 has gone down. It then advertises the network for this link with a hop count metric of 16. Which routing loop prevention mechanism is in effect?
ans:
route poisoning

11. Refer to the exhibit. The routers in this network are running RIP. Router A has not received an update from Router B in over three minutes. How will Router A respond?
ans:
The Invalid timer will mark the route as unusable if an update has not been received in 180 seconds.

12. What actions will occur after RouterA loses connectivity to network 114.125.16.0? (Choose two.)
ans:
RouterB will include network 123.92.76.0 and 136.125.85.0 in its update to RouterA.
Router C will learn of the loss of connectivity to network 114.125.16.0 from RouterB.

13. Three routers running a distance-vector routing protocol lost all power, including the battery backups. When the routers reload, what will happen?
ans:
They will send updates that include only directly connected routes to their directly connected neighbors.

14. Which statement is true regarding cisco’s RIP_JITTER variable?
ans:
It prevents the synchronization of routing updates by subtracting a random length of time ranging from 0% to 15% of the specified interval time from the next routing update interval.

15. Which of the following methods does split horizon use to reduce incorrect routing information?
ans:
Information learned from one source is not distributed back to that source.

16. A network administrator is evaluating RIP versus EIGRP for a new network. The network will be sensitive to congestion and must respond quickly to topology changes. What are two good reasons to choose EIGRP instead of RIP in this case? (Choose two.)
ans:
EIGRP only updates affected neighbors.
EIGRP updates are partial.

17. Which two statements describe EIGRP? (Choose two.)
ans:
EIGRP sends triggered updates whenever there is a change in topology that influences the routing information.
EIGRP sends a partial routing table update, which includes just routes that have been changed.

18. Which three routing protocols are distance vector routing protocols? (Choose three).
ans:
RIPv1
EIGRP
RIPv2

19. Which of the following statements are correct about RIP?
ans:
will send out an update if there is a failure of a link

20. Which event will cause a triggered update?
ans:
a route is installed in the routing table

CCNA 2 Take Assessment Chapter 2 - 100%

Expect minimum percentage: 100%

ERouting V4.0

1. Refer to the exhibit. Given the output in the exhibit, how would a clock rate be determined for this link?
ans:
The rate configured on the DCE determines the clock rate

2. Which piece of information is available from examining the output of the command show ip interface brief?
ans:
Interface IP address

3. Refer to the exhibit. Which set of commands will configure static routes that will allow the WinterPark and the Altamonte routers to deliver packets from each LAN and direct all other traffic to the Internet?
ans:
WinterPark(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.146.1
Altamonte(config)# ip route 10.0.234.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.146.2
Altamonte(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 s0/1

4. The output of the Router# show interfaces serial 0/1 command displays the following:

Serial0/1 is up, line protocol is down.

What is the most likely cause for the line protocol being down?
ans:
No clock rate has been set

5. Which two statements describe functions or characteristics of CDP? (Choose two.)
ans:
It starts up automatically and allows the device to detect directly connected neighbor devices that use CDP
It allows systems to learn about each other even if different network layer protocols are configured.

6. What happens to a static route entry in a routing table when the outgoing interface is not available?
ans:
The route is removed from the table.

7. What happens to a static route entry in a routing table when the outgoing interface is not available?
ans:
The route is removed from the table

8. The routers in the diagram use the subnet assignments shown. What is the most efficient route summary that can be configured on Router3 to advertise the internal networks to the cloud?
ans:
192.1.1.0/25

9.Refer to the exhibit. What is the significance of the /8 in the route to the 10.0.0.0 network?
ans:
It indicates the number of consecutive bits, from the left, in the destination IP address of a packet that must match 10.0.0.0 to use that route

10. A router has one static route configured to each destination network. Which two scenarios would require an administrator to alter the static routes that are configured on that router? (Choose two.)
ans:
The destination network no longer exists.
A topology change occurs where the existing next-hop address or exit interface is not accessible.

11. Refer to the exhibit. A company network engineer is assigned to establish connectivity between the two Ethernet networks so that hosts on the 10.1.1.0/24 subnet can contact hosts on the 10.1.2.0/24 subnet. The engineer has been told to use only static routing for these company routers. Which set of commands will establish connectivity between the two Ethernet networks?
ans:
R1(config)# ip route 10.1.1.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.0.2
R2(config)# ip route 10.1.2.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.0.1

12. What two devices are responsible for converting the data from the WAN service provider into a form acceptable by the router? (Choose two).
ans: a modem
a CSU/DSU device

13.Which of the following is true regarding CDP and the graphic shown?
ans:
By default, Router A will receive CDP advertisements from routers B and C.

14. Refer to the exhibit. How will packets destined to the 172.16.0.0 network be forwarded?
ans:
Router1 will perform recursive lookup and packet will exit S0/0.

15. Refer to the exhibit. What two commands will change the next-hop address for the 10.0.0.0/8 network from 172.16.40.2 to 192.168.1.2? (Choose two.)
ans:
A(config)# no ip route 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 172.16.40.2
A(config)# ip route 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 192.168.1.2

16. A static route that points to the next hop IP will have what administrative distance and metric in the routing table?
ans:
administrative distance of 1 and metric of 0

17. Hosts on two separate subnets cannot communicate. The network administrator suspects a missing route in one of the routing tables. Which three commands can be used to help troubleshoot Layer 3 connectivity issues? (Choose three.)
ans:
ping
traceroute
show ip route

18. Which of the following are displayed by the Router# show cdp neighbors command? (Choose three.)
ans:
platform
holdtime
local interface

19. A network administrator enters the following command into Router1: ip route 192.168.0.0 255.255.255.0 S0/1/0. Router1 then receives a packet that is destined for 192.168.0.22/24. After finding the recently configured static route in the routing table, what does Router1 do next to process the packet?
ans:
encapsulates the packet into a frame for the WAN link and forwards the packet out the S0/1/0 interface

20. Refer to the exhibit. Which static route should be configured on Router1 so that host A will be able to reach host B on the 172.16.0.0 network?
ans:
ip route 172.16.0.0 255.255.0.0 S0/0/0

21. Refer to the exhibit. What two commands are required to provide connectivity between the 192.168.1.0 and 10.0.0.0 networks without requiring recursive lookup? (Choose two.)
ans:
A(config)# ip route 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 s 0/1/0
B(config)# ip route 192.168.1.0 255.255.255.0 s 0/0/0

22. Which address can be used to summarize networks 172.16.0.0/24 thru 172.16.7.0/24?
ans:
172.16.0.0/21

23. Why is it advisable to enter a next-hop IP address when creating a static route whose exit interface is an Ethernet network?
ans:
In a multi-access network, the router cannot determine the next-hop MAC address for the Ethernet frame without a next-hop address.

CCNA 2 Take Assessment Chapter 1 - 100%

Expect minimum percentage: 100%

1. What three processes does a router execute when it receives a packet from one network that is destined for another network? (Choose three.)
ans:
decapsulates the Layer 3 packet by stripping off the Layer 2 frame header
uses the destination IP Address in the IP header to look up the next-hop address in the routing table
encapsulates the Layer 3 packet into the new Layer 2 frame and forwards it out the exit interface

2. Which interfaces in the exhibit could be used for a leased line WAN connection? (Choose two.)
ans:
1
4

3. Refer to the exhibit. After host 2 is connected to the switch on the LAN, host 2 is unable to communicate with host 1. What is the cause of this problem?
ans:
Host 1 and host 2 are on different networks.

4. Which of the following is the correct flow of routines for a router startup?
ans:
load bootstrap, load IOS, apply configuration

5. What is the default sequence for loading the configuration file?
ans:
NVRAM, TFTP, CONSOLE

6. Passwords can be used to restrict access to all or parts of the Cisco IOS. Select the modes and interfaces that can be protected with passwords. (Choose three.)
ans:
VTY interface
console interface
privileged EXEC mode

7. Which are functions of a router? (Choose three.)
ans:
packet switching
segmentation of broadcast domains
selection of best path based on logical addressing

8. Refer to the exhibit. Host A pings host B. When R4 accepts the ping into the Ethernet interface, what two pieces of header information are included? (Choose two.)
ans:
destination IP address: 192.168.10.134
destination MAC address: 9999.DADC.1234

9. Refer to the exhibit. What can be concluded from the output of the running-configuration of a router?
ans:
The commands that are displayed determine the current operation of the router.

10. From what location can a router load the Cisco IOS during the boot process? (Choose two.)
ans:
TFTP server
Flash memory

11. Which two statements describe characteristics of load balancing? (Choose two.)
ans:
Load balancing allows a router to forward packets over multiple paths to the same destination network.
Unequal cost load balancing is supported by EIGRP.

12. Refer to the exhibit. What can be concluded from the routing table output in the exhibit? (Choose two.)
ans:
The FastEthernet0/0 and Serial0/0/0 interfaces of this router were configured with an IP address and the no shutdown command.
An IP packet received by this router with a destination address of 198.18.9.1 will be forwarded out of the Serial0/0/0 interface.

13. The serial connection shown in the graphic needs to be configured. Which configuration commands must be made on the Sydney router to establish connectivity with the Melbourne site? (Choose three.)
ans:
Sydney(config-if)# ip address 201.100.53.2 255.255.255.0
Sydney(config-if)# no shutdown
Sydney(config-if)# clock rate 56000

14. What is the outcome of entering these commands?
R1(config)# line vty 0 4
R1(config-line)# password check123
R1(config-line)# login
ans:
sets the password to be used for connecting to this router via Telnet

15. Refer to the exhibit. All routers have a route in its routing table to each network that is shown in the exhibit. Default routes have not been issued on these routers. What can be concluded about how packets are forwarded in this network? (Choose two.)
ans:
If RouterA receives a packet that is destined for 192.168.3.146, it will be forwarded out interface S0/0/1.
If RouterB receives a packet that is destined for 10.5.27.15, it will be forwarded out interface S0/0/1.

16. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator has configured the router with the interface IP addresses shown for the directly connected networks. Pings from the router to hosts on the connected networks or pings between router interfaces are not working. What is the most likely problem?
ans:
The interfaces must be enabled with the no shutdown command.

17. A network administrator has just entered new configurations into Router1. Which command should be executed to save configuration changes to NVRAM?
ans:
Router1# copy running-config startup-config

18. If a router cannot find a valid configuration file during the startup sequence, what will occur?
ans:
The router will prompt the user for a response to enter setup mode.

19. What header address information does a router change in the information it receives from an attached Ethernet interface before information is transmitted out another interface?
ans:
the Layer 2 source and destination address

20. The network administrator needs to connect two routers directly via their FastEthernet ports. What cable should the network administrator use?
ans:
cross-over

21. Which two statements correctly describe the components of a router? (Choose two.)
ans:
ROM contains diagnostics executed on hardware modules.
Flash memory does not lose its contents during a reboot.

CCNA 2 Take Assessment Chapter 3 - 100%

Expect minimum percentage: 100%

1) Refer to the exhibit. Which statement correctly describes how R1 will determine the best path to R2?
ans:
R1 will install an EIGRP route using network B in its routing table because the administrative distance of EIGRP is lower than RIP.

2) Which two statements are true regarding classless routing protocols? (Choose two.)
ans:
sends subnet mask information in routing updates
allows for use of both 192.168.1.0/30 and 192.168.1.16/28 subnets in the same topology

3) Which command would the network administrator issue to determine if load balancing is in effect on a router?
ans:
show ip route

4) Which statement is true regarding routing protocols?
ans:
EIGRP uses DUAL to calculate the shortest path and can be configured to do unequal cost load balancing.

5) An engineer creates a static route by entering the Router(config)# ip route 10.0.0.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.1.2 command. What can be concluded about this route?
ans:
The administrative distance of this route is 1.

6) Which two conditions would create a setting where the use of a distance-vector routing protocol would be efficient? (Choose two.)
ans:
the network is using a hub and spoke topology
the network is using a flat design

7) Refer to the exhibit. If RIP is the routing protocol, what is the value of the metric from router A to network 192.168.5.0/24?
ans:
3

8) What is the purpose of a routing protocol?
ans:
It allows a router to share information about known networks with other routers.

9) Which two statements correctly describe the concepts of administrative distance and metric? (Choose two.)
ans:
Administrative distance refers to the trustworthiness of a particular route.
Routes with the smallest metric to a destination indicate the best path.

10)Which of the following best describes the operation of distance vector routing protocols?
ans:
They send their routing tables to directly connected neighbors.

11) Which of the following is associated with link-state routing protocols?
ans:
shortest-path first calculations

12) The following line of code is displayed in a routing table:
R 209.165.201.0/24 [120/2] via 192.168.252.2, 00:00:16, S0/0/0
What can be concluded from this output?
ans:
The value, 120, is used to determine the best path when a router has more than one routing protocol configured for the same destination network.

13) Why is fast convergence desirable in networks that use dynamic routing protocols?
ans:
Routers may make incorrect forwarding decisions until the network has converged.

14) Which of the following conditions must be met in order for a network to have converged
ans:
The routers in the network are operating with consistent routing knowledge.

15) Which two statements are true regarding the advantages of the use of static routes? (Choose two).

increased security
the administrator maintains control over routing

16) Which two statements are true regarding metrics? (Choose two.)
ans:
EIGRP uses bandwidth as a metric.
OSPF uses cost based on bandwidth as a metric.

17) What will be the result of the following commands?
ORL(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0
ORL(config-if)# ip address 172.16.3.1 255.255.255.0
ORL(config-if)# no shutdown
ans:
A routing table entry is made to the 172.16.3.0 network with a code of "C".

18) Refer to the exhibit. Router1 and Router2 are running EIGRP. All interfaces are operational and packets can be forwarded between all networks. What information will be found in the routing table for Router1?
ans:
The administrative distance of the route to network 172.16.0.0 will be 90.

19) A growing medium-sized manufacturing company recently began to have routing instability issues. The company uses static routes and has a mixture of over 30 Cisco and non-Cisco routers. The network administrator has decided to convert the network to dynamic routing. What characteristics of protocols should be considered in this selection process?
ans:
OSPF can be used between the routers.

20) A router learns two paths with equal metrics to a destination network via the RIP routing protocol. How will the router handle packets to the destination network?
ans:
The router will install both routes in the routing table and load balance between the two.

21) The following line of code is present in the routing table:
O 10.16.1.0/27 [110/129] via 192.168.1.5, 00:00:05, Serial0/0/1
What does the number 129 indicate in this output?
ans:
The cost for this link has a value of 129.

22) When multiple routing protocols have a route to the same destination network, what determines which route is installed in the routing table?
ans:
lowest administrative distance